Insights Daily Current Events, 09 July 2015

Insights Daily Current Events, 09 July 2015

Archives

Centre wants to break forex reserves

The central government is examining if India’s foreign exchange reserves held by the Reserve Bank can be deployed for funding infrastructure projects or recapitalising public sector banks.

  • According to rough estimates of the Finance Ministry, bad loans-ridden banks would require capital infusion of about Rs. 40,000 crore over two years.
  • India’s forex reserves is doing pretty well. Recently, it touched a record $355.46 billion.

However, as of now, the proposal does not enjoy unanimous support within the government. The government doesn’t own the country’s foreign exchange reserves.

But, can the government deploy these reserves?

  • According to a former RBI Governor, the government could deploy the reserves held by the central bank for recapitalisation of banks. The government could also draw from the RBI’s balance sheet for this objective.

However, the procedure might not be easy for the government to do so as the Board of the Reserve Bank had to approve it. Even the RBI would be unwilling to deploy reserves for scuh risky purposes by compromising BoP.

Forex reserves – Quick look:

Foreign exchange reserves are an important component of the balance of payments and an essential element in the analysis of an economy’s external position.

  • The components of India’s foreign exchange reserves are foreign currency assets (FCA), gold, SDRs and reserve tranche position (RTP) in the IMF.
  • Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) is the biggest component of the forex reserves.

Sources: The Hindu, RBI.

India to contribute $18 billion to BRICS’ $100-billion foreign exchange reserves pool

India is all set to contribute $18 billion to the $100 billion foreign-exchange reserves pool that is being set up by five nations of the BRICS grouping.

Why?

  • To help each other “in case of any problems with dollar liquidity”.

Agreement:

  • The Agreement on setting BRICS Pool of Conventional Currency Reserves was signed on July 15, 2014 at the summit in Fortaleza (Brazil). The agreement was signed in Moscow after a meeting of the Finance Ministers and heads of the central banks of the BRICS countries.
  • The operational agreement regarding this was signed by the central banks of Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa on July 7, 2015 in Moscow. The Operational Agreement details the working procedures of the Pool to be observed by BRICS central banks, and defines their rights and obligations.
  • The Agreement outlines the terms of mutual support for member states in the framework of the Agreement on BRICS Pool of Conventional Currency Reserves.

About the Pool:

  • The pool is being set up according to an agreement signed by Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
  • It will be a $100 billion pool, with maximum $41 billion coming from China.
  • India’s contribution of $18 billion to the Pool will be same as that of Brazil and Russia. South Africa would chip in $5 billion.
  • The fund will be an “insurance instrument” that members nations could draw on if they experience problems with their balance of payments.
  • The Pool will go into force on July 30.
  • The Pool is tasked to ensure mutual provision of US dollars by the central banks of BRICS members in case of any problems with dollar liquidity.
  • The Pool would help BRICS members to maintain financial stability in case of volatility in dollar exchange rate.

The BRICS nations account for nearly $16 trillion in GDP and 40 per cent of the world’s population.

Sources: ET.

Racist slur can land you in jail for 5 years

The Union Ministry of Home Affairs recently told the Delhi High Court that it has decided to amend the Indian Penal Code to make “racial discrimination” a non-bailable criminal offence.

  • Accordingly, any derogatory reference meant to discriminate against the race of a person from the Northeast or any other part of the country will become a non-bailable offence with punishment of up to five years in jail.
  • The Ministry of Home Affairs is in the process of finalising a comprehensive Bill for insertion of new Sections 153C and 509A in the Indian Penal Code, which will be introduced in Parliament after inter-Ministerial consultation.

What the Law says?

  • Under the amended law, any word, sign or gesture insulting the race of a person will be punishable with a three-year prison term.
  • Any word, gesture, written statement or activity aimed at discriminating against the race of a person or promoting violence against a particular race will invite a prison term of five years.

Background:

  • Concerned over the spate of attacks on people from the Northeast in Delhi, the High Court had earlier asked the Ministry of Home Affairs to change the existing SC/ST Act or make other stronger prosecuting laws to protect the victims.
  • The Central government had set up the M.K. Bezbaruah committee which recommended a series of punitive actions to prevent such attacks. The ministry has accepted most of the recommendations made by the committee.

Sources: The Hindu.

Modi, Putin discuss India’s accession to Shanghai block

Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Russian President Vladimir Putin recently resolved to take strategic bilateral ties forward and discussed India’s accession to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).

  • Modi is in Russia primarily for BRICS and Shanghai Cooperation Organisation summits.
  • India is currently an observer in the multilateral grouping.

About the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):

It is a Eurasian political, economic and military organisation which was founded in 2001 in Shanghai by the leaders of China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. These countries, except for Uzbekistan, had been members of the Shanghai Five, founded in 1996; after the inclusion of Uzbekistan in 2001, the members renamed the organisation.

  • The SCO is seen as a counter to the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
  • Its six full members account for 60% of the land mass of Eurasia and its population is a quarter of the world’s. With observer states included, its affiliates account for about half of the world’s population.
  • The SCO has established relations with the United Nations, where it is an observer in the General Assembly, the European Union, Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN), the Commonwealth of Independent States and the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation.
  • It also has Afghanistan, Iran, Mongolia and Pakistan as observers, and Belarus, Sri Lanka and Turkey as dialogue partners.

The Hindu, Wiki.

Entire Nagaland declared as ‘disturbed area’

The Centre has declared entire Nagaland as a “disturbed area”.

Why?

  • The centre says that it finds that a “dangerous condition” prevails in Nagaland and armed forces should assist the civil administration in maintaining law and order.

Details:

  • The centre declared Nagaland as a disturbed area in exercise of the powers conferred by Section 3 of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act 1958 for a period of one year with effect from June 30, 2015.
  • The decision came almost a month after NSCN-K, the dominant Naga rebel group, attacked an army convoy in Manipur’s Chandel district and killed 18 soldiers.

Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act:

It is an Act empowering armed forces to deal effectively in ‘Disturbed Areas’. Any area which is declared ‘Disturbed’ under the disturbed areas act enables armed forces to resort to the provisions of AFSPA.

Who declares an area as disturbed?

  • The choice of declaring any area as ‘disturbed’ vests both with state and central government.

Special powers provided to armed forces:

After an area comes under the ambit of AFSPA, any commissioned officer, warrant officer, non-commissioned officer or another person of equivalent rank can use force for a variety of reasons while still being immune to the prosecution.

Ambit:

  • The act was passed on 11 September 1958 by the parliament of India to provide special legal security to the armed forces carrying out operations in the troubled areas of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura (seven sisters).
  • In 1990 the act was extended to the state of Jammu and Kashmir to confront the rising insurgency in the area.
  • In Manipur, despite opposition from the Central government, state government withdrew the Act in some parts in Aug, 2004.

The government can declare AFSPA in the following conditions:

  • When the local administration fails to deal with local issues and the police proves inefficient to cope with them.
  • When the scale of unrest or instability in the state is too large for the police to handle.

In an area declared, “disturbed” an army officer is legally free to carry out following operations:

  • Fire upon or otherwise use force, even to the causing of death, against any person who is acting in contravention of any law” against “assembly of five or more persons” or possession of deadly weapons.
  • Destroy any shelter (private or govt.) from which armed attacks are made or likely to be made or attempted to be made.
  • Arrest any person without warrant who has committed a cognizable offence or against whom a reasonable suspicion exists that he has committed or is about to commit a cognizable offence.
  • Enter and search, without warrant, any premises for purpose of arrest or to recover any person, arms, explosives.
  • Search and seize any vehicle suspected to be carrying an offender or any person against whom any reasonable suspicion exists that he has or is about to commit an offence.
  • Provide legal immunity to the army personnel found involved in any violation or ethical breach i.e., they cannot be sued or prosecuted.

The decision of the government to declare a particular area ‘disturbed’ cannot be challenged in a court of law. In 2005 the Jeevan Reddy Commission said that AFSPA should be repealed and the clauses that are required should be included in other Acts.

Sources: The Hindu, PIB, ET, NDTV.

NGT order may affect 80 projects in Tamil Nadu

The National Green Tribunal has set aside an office memorandum by the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) that allows post-facto clearance for projects. With this nearly 80 construction projects in Tamil Nadu are likely to come to a standstill.

  • The projects require prior environmental clearance as per the Environment Impact Assessment Notification of 2006. Most of the projects had commenced construction and then sought environmental clearance, while a few had applied for clearance, but started construction before sanction was given.
  • The Tribunal has come down on seven of the project proponents who impleaded in the case.

About the National Green Tribunal (NGT)

The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.

  • The tribunal also deals with matters relating to the enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property.
  • The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
  • The Tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts.
  • The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.

Members:

  • The sanctioned strength of the tribunal is currently 10 expert members and 10 judicial members although the act allows for up to 20 of each.
  • The Chairman of the tribunal who is the administrative head of the tribunal also serves as a judicial member.
  • Every bench of the tribunal must consist of at least one expert member and one judicial member. The Chairman of the tribunal is required to be a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High Court or a judge of the Supreme Court of India.
  • Members are chosen by a selection committee (headed by a sitting judge of the Supreme Court of India) that reviews their applications and conducts interviews.
  • The Judicial members are chosen from applicants who are serving or retired judges of High Courts. Expert members are chosen from applicants who are either serving or retired bureaucrats not below the rank of an Additional Secretary to the Government of India (not below the rank of Principal Secretary if serving under a state government) with a minimum administrative experience of five years in dealing with environmental matters. Or, the expert members must have a doctorate in a related field.

Sources: The Hindu, Wiki, NGT.

NJAC: SC seeks details of States’ ratification

The Supreme Court has sought details from the Centre about the ratification process of the 99th Constitution Amendment incorporating the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) law by State Assemblies.

  • The Centre had earlier told the court that as many as 20 states have approved the Constitutional amendment to replace the Collegium system with the NJAC.

NJAC:

NJAC is a body responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges to the higher judiciary in India. It seeks to replace the collegium system of appointing the judges of Supreme Court and 24 High Courts with judicial appointments commission wherein the executive will have a say in appointing the judges.

Details:

  • A new article, Article 124A, (which provides for the composition of the NJAC) will be inserted into the Constitution.
  • The NJAC Act also seeks changes in articles 124,217,222 and 231.

The commission will consist of the following members:

  • Chief Justice of India (Chairperson, ex officio)
  • Two other senior judges of the Supreme Court next to the Chief Justice of India – ex officio
  • The Union Minister of Law and Justice, ex-officio
  • Two eminent persons (to be nominated by a committee consisting of the Chief Justice of India, Prime Minister of India and the Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha or where there is no such Leader of Opposition, then, the Leader of single largest Opposition Party in Lok Sabha), provided that of the two eminent persons, one person would be from the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes or OBC or minority communities or a woman. The eminent persons shall be nominated for a period of three years and shall not be eligible for re-nomination.

Functions of the Commission:

  • Recommending persons for appointment as Chief Justice of India, Judges of the Supreme Court, Chief Justices of High Courts and other Judges of High Courts.
  • Recommending transfer of Chief Justices and other Judges of High Courts from one High Court to any other High Court.
  • Ensuring that the persons recommended are of ability and integrity.

Under the present Collegium system, the Chief Justice of India would consult the four senior most judges of the Supreme Court for Supreme Court appointments and two senior-most judges for high court appointments.

Sources: The Hindu, PIB, IE.

Australian Gets Fatal ‘One-In-A-Million’ Brain Disease

An Australian has been diagnosed with the rare, degenerative brain condition sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD).

About Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD):

  • CJD is a rare, degenerative disease of the brain that is not linked to the consumption of meat and occurs in one in a million people per year in Australia.
  • CJD is caused by an agent called a prion. Prions are misfolded proteins that replicate by converting their properly folded counterparts, in their host, to the same misfolded structure they possess.
  • It has no treatment or cure and the disease is fatal within weeks or months after the onset of symptoms.
  • CJD has been likened to mad cow disease.
  • Most cases of CJD occur because of mutations with a person’s brain and are not spread from other people.
  • The first symptom of CJD is rapidly progressive dementia, leading to memory loss, personality changes, and hallucinations. Other frequently occurring features include anxiety, depression, paranoia, obsessive-compulsive symptoms, and psychosis. This is accompanied by physical problems such as speech impairment, jerky movements (myoclonus), balance and coordination dysfunction (ataxia), changes in gait, rigid posture, and seizures.
  • As of now, no generally accepted treatment for CJD exists.

Sources: The Hindu, Wiki.

Invasive species of snail spotted on Goa varsity campus

The Giant African Land Snail (GALS) was spotted on the campus of Goa University at Taleigao, near Panaji, recently.

  • It is listed as one of the world’s 100 most invasive species by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.
  • This species is one of the most damaging land snails in the world.

Why is it a cause for concern?

If these snails multiply, there will be a threat to agro-horticulture and public health since they act as a vector of human diseases like Eosinophilic meningitis, which is caused by Angiostrongylus cantonensis, a parasite that nematode commonly resides in the pulmonary arteries of rats. The parasite is passed on to humans through eating raw or improperly cooked snails or freshwater prawns.

Sources: The Hindu.

Insights Secure Prelims 2015

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  1. 1. Question

    The components of India’s foreign exchange reserves are:

    1. Foreign currency assets (FCA)
    2. Gold
    3. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
    4. Reserve tranche position (RTP) in the IMF

    Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

    • a) 1,2 and 3 Only
    • b) 2, 3 and 4 Only
    • c) 1,2 and 4 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Answer: d
  2. 2. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the ‘foreign exchange reserves pool’, that is being set up by five nations of the BRICS grouping:

    1. It will be a $100 billion pool.
    2. India is the largest contributor to the pool.
    3. The Pool will be an “insurance instrument” that members nations could draw on if they experience problems with their balance of payments.

    Which of the above statements are correct?

    • 1 and 2 Only
    • 2 and 3 Only
    • 1 and 3 Only
    • All
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)Explanation: China is the largest contributor.

  3. 3. Question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):

    1. India is currently an observer in this multilateral grouping.
    2. China is also a part of this organisation.
    3. It is the Asian wing of the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).

    Which of the above statements are correct?

    • 1 and 3 Only
    • 1 and 2 Only
    • 2 and 3 Only
    • All
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)Explanation: The SCO is seen as a counter to the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).

  4. 4. Question

    With reference to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, consider the following statements:

    1. Under the provisions of the Act, the choice of declaring any area as ‘disturbed’ vests both with state and central government.
    2. The decision of the government to declare a particular area ‘disturbed’ cannot be challenged in a court of law.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • 1 Only
    • 2 Only
    • Both
    • None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)
  5. 5. Question

    Under which of the following conditions, can the government declare Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act AFSPA in a state?

    1. When the local administration fails to deal with local issues and the police proves inefficient to cope with them.
    2. When the scale of unrest or instability in the state is too large for the police to handle.
    3. When the President’s Rule is extended beyond one year.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • 1 and 2 Only
    • 2 and 3 Only
    • 1 and 3 Only
    • All
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)
  6. 6. Question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT):

    1. It is a statutory body.
    2. The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure.
    3. The Chairman of the tribunal is required to be a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High Court or a judge of the Supreme Court of India.

    Which of the above statements are Correct?

    • 1 and 2 Only
    • 2 and 3 Only
    • 1 and 3 Only
    • All
    Solution: d)
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Indian Economy & Art and Culture(P+M)

           Indian Economy, Art And Culture(P+M)

In this timetable we will be covering:

  • NCERT Class XI Indian Economic Development
  • NCERT Class XII Macroeconomics
  • NCERT Class XI Fine Art (Introduction to Indian Art)
  • NIOS – Indian Art and Culture
  • Economic Survey – 2015 (Volume 1 and 2)

Next Fifteen days will be hectic for you. We had told you that we would cover Ramesh Singh selectively, but looking at this year’s Economic Survey, we felt that the latter is more relevant to Prelims (+ Mains) than Ramesh Singh (This is still useful). Moreover, it is impossible to cover this book in such a short duration.

As you already know that the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam syllabus has the following topics related to Economy part:

Economic and Social Development Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector initiatives

The above mentioned sources adequately cover these topics in much more detail than required. However, reading them in-depth helps in Mains as well. Therefore, it is good to read them with utmost seriousness now itself.

Along with Economy part, we are also covering Art and Culture from two authentic sources – NCERT and NIOS. If you read these sources, you should be able to solve most of the questions asked in UPSC Preliminary Exam on the topics of Indian Art and Culture.

Some of you might wonder: How to complete so much in so less time?

If you read any source with extreme urgency and purpose, you usually read them better and comprehend better. It is possible to complete these targets within stipulated time. Well, there is no short-cut too. You have to complete them anyway. Please don’t listen to naysayers. If you want to complete these targets, you WILL complete them. Trust us.

Following is the Timetable for the Next Fifteen Days. Hope you will enjoy this. Meanwhile, let us know how useful were previous timetables and our questions. Your feedback is our motivation. Thank you.

Sl No. Date Economy Art & Culture
1 8 July 2015 NCERT, Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapters 1,2 and 3 NCERT, Class XI, Fine Art – Introduction to Indian Art, Chapters 1,2 and 3
2 9 July 2015 NCERT, Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapters 4, 5 and 6 NCERT, Class XI, Fine Art – Introduction to Indian Art, Chapters 4 and 5
3 10 July 2015 BREAK
4 11 July 2015 NCERT, Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapters 6,7, 8 and 9 NCERT, Class XI, Fine Art – Introduction to Indian Art, Chapters 6 and 7
5 12 July 2015 REVISION
6 13 July 2015 NCERT, Class XII, Macroeconomics, Chapters 1, 2 and 3 NCERT, Class XI, Fine Art – Introduction to Indian Art, Chapters 8 and 9 (Glossary is important!)
7 14 July 2015 NCERT, Class XII, Macroeconomics, Chapters 4, 5 and 6 NIOS, Art and Culture Module – 4Complete(http://www.nios.ac.in/online-course-material/secondary-courses/indian-culture-and-heritage-(223)-syllabus.aspx)
8 15 July 2015 Economic Survey, Volume – 1, Chapters – 1,2 and 3 NIOS, Art and Culture Module – 5Complete(http://www.nios.ac.in/online-course-material/secondary-courses/indian-culture-and-heritage-(223)-syllabus.aspx)
9 16 July 2015 Economic Survey, Volume – 1, Chapters – 4, 5, 6 and 7 NIOS, Art and Culture Module – 6 – Chapters 14, 15 and 16(http://www.nios.ac.in/online-course-material/secondary-courses/indian-culture-and-heritage-(223)-syllabus.aspx)
10 17 July 2015 Economic Survey, Volume – 1, Chapters – 8, 9 and 10  Economic Survey, Volume – 2, Chapters – 1 and 2
11 18 July 2015 REVISION
12 19 July 2015 REVISION
13 20 July 2015 Economic Survey, Volume – 2, Chapters – 3, 4 and 5
14 21 July 2015 Economic Survey, Volume – 2, Chapters – 6, 7, 8 and 9
15 22 July 2015 REVISION/LEFT OVER CHAPTERS

                                   Descriptive Questions

1) Give a quantitative appraisal of India’s demographic profile during the colonial period and highlight the salient features of India’s pre-independence occupational structure. (200 Words)

NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 1

2) Would you agree that the people of the Indus Valley Civilisation were great art lovers? Give reasons for your answer. (200 Words)

NCERT Class XI, Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter – 2

                   

                     Multiple Choice Questions Quiz

1. Question

  1. With reference to Indian economy before and after the advent of the British, consider the following statements:

    1. The Indian economy was predominantly agrarian and the total absence of manufacturing industries was its main feature
    2. The British policies transformed India into a net importer of raw materials and exporter of finished industrial products to Britain

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Solution: d)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 1

  2. 2. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. During the British rule, the jute mills dominated by the Indians were mainly concentrated in Bengal
    2. During the early British rule, capital goods industry dominated Indian economy

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Solution: d)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 1

    There was hardly any capital goods industry to help promote further industrialisation in India. Capital goods industry means industries, which can produce machine tools, which are, in turn, used for producing articles for current consumption.

  3. 3. Question

    With reference to opening up of the Suez Canal and its impacts, consider the following statements:

    1. The opening of Suez Canal benefited India’s foreign trade during the British rule
    2. The Suez Canal was planned by the French but constructed by the British
    3. The Suez Canal was opened for trade on the same year M.K. Gandhi was born

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 and 2 Only
    • b) 2 and 3 Only
    • c) 1 and 3 Only
    • d) All

    Solution: b)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 1

    https://people.hofstra.edu/geotrans/eng/ch2en/conc2en/suez.html

  4. 4. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The most important characteristic of India’s foreign trade throughout the colonial period was the generation of a large export surplus
    2. During the colonial period India experienced acute scarcity of essential goods like kerosene, clothes etc

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Solution: c)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 1

  5. 5. Question

    With reference to India’s demographic characteristics during the colonial period, consider the following statements:

    1. Before 1921, India was in the second stage of demographic transition
    2. In 1921, urban India added more numbers to its population in a decade than rural India did

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Solution: b)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 1

    http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/census-findings-point-to-decade-of-rural-distress/article2485675.ece

  6. 6. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The introduction of railways by the British increased commercialisation of Indian agriculture which adversely affected the comparative self-sufficiency of the village economies in India
    2. With the introduction of railways, during the colonial period Indian people accrued both economic and social benefits

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Solution: a)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 1

  7. 7. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. A steady increase in the GDP can be called as economic growth
    2. In India GDP is calculated at factor prices

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
  8. 8. Question

    Which of the following aptly explains the poor performance of the agricultural sector in the Soviet Union despite availability of vast areas of highly fertile land?

    • a) Ownership of land by the state
    • b) Collective farming
    • c) Landless laborers
    • d) All the above
    Solution: d)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 2

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Agriculture_in_the_Soviet_Union

  9. 9. Question

    In India the earliest paintings have been reported from the

    • a) Upper Paleolithic age
    • b) Bronze age
    • c) Neolithic age
    • d) Mesolithic era
    Solution: a)

    NCERT Class XI, Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter – 1

    http://www.diffen.com/difference/Neolithic_vs_Paleolithic

  10. 10. Question

    “The paintings of this period reveal the association, contact, and mutual exchange of requirements of the cave dwellers of this area with settled agricultural communities of the Malwa plains.”

    To which of the following periods does above statement refer?

    • a) Chalcolithic age
    • b) Mesolithic age
    • c) Neolithic age
    • d) Paleolithic age
    Solution: a)

    NCERT Class XI, Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter – 1

  11. 11. Question

    If there is more marketed surplus in an economy, what will happen to the price of foodgrains?

    • a) It will decline
    • b) It will increase
    • c) It will remain same
    • d) None of the above
    Solution:. a)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 2

    The portion of agricultural produce which is sold in the market by the farmers is called marketed surplus. Fortunately, as pointed out by the famous economist C.H. Hanumantha Rao, a good proportion of the rice and wheat produced during the green revolution period (available as marketed surplus) was sold by the farmers in the market. As a result, the price of food grains declined relative to other items of consumption.

  12. 12. Question

    Which of the following Indus Valley Civilization sites is NOT located in India?

    1. Dholavira
    2. Kalibangan
    3. Ganeriwala
    4. Ropar
    5. Rakhigarhi
    6. Kot Bala

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 2,4 and 5 Only
    • b) 3 and 5 Only
    • c) 3 and 6 Only
    • d) 12,3 and 6 Only
    Solution: c)

    NCERT Class XI, Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter – 2

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Indus_Valley_Civilization_sites

                  INDIAN ECONOMY & ART 02nd & 03rd  DAY

                                         

                                        Descriptive Questions

    1) Critically analyse the components of New Economic Policy which India initiated in early 1990s and their impact on the Indian economy. (200 Words)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 3

    2) Critically evaluate the performance of poverty alleviation programmes in India. (200 Words)

    NCERT Class XI, Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter – 4

    3) Illustrate the difference between rural and urban poverty. Is it correct to say that poverty has shifted from rural to urban areas? Use the trends in poverty ratio to support your answer. (200 Words)

    NCERT Class XI, Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter – 4

    4) With suitable examples, critically analyse the importance of human capital for economic growth and human development. (200 Words)

    NCERT Class XI, Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter – 5

    5) What are the alternative channels available for agricultural marketing? Give some examples and examine if they are efficient. (200 Words)

    NCERT Class XI, Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter – 6

    6) Compared to the 1970s, there has hardly been any change in the distribution of workforce across various industries in India. Comment. (200 Words)

    NCERT Class XI, Introduction to Indian Art, Chapter – 7

                   

                         Multiple Choice Questions Quiz

    1. 1. Question

      Consider the following statements:

      1. Tariffs decrease the price of the good in the domestic market
      2. Quotas harm consumers while benefiting foreign and domestic goods producers

      Which of the above statements is/are correct?

      • a) 1 Only
      • b) 2 Only
      • c) Both
      • d) None
      Solution: b)

      Tariffs are taxes imposed on imported goods; they will increase the price of the good in the domestic market. Domestic producers benefit because they receive higher prices. The government benefits by collecting tax revenues

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 2

      http://www.investopedia.com/exam-guide/cfa-level-1/global-economic-analysis/tariffs-quotas.asp

    2. 2. Question

      Which of the following can be termed as an important failure of India’s economic policies followed during 1950-1990?

      • a) Failing to improve agricultural productivity
      • b) Failing to boost exports
      • c) Failing to absorb employment from agriculture into manufacturing and services sector
      • d) None of the above
      Solution: c)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 2

      In India, between 1950 and 1990, the proportion of GDP contributed by agriculture declined significantly but not the population depending on it (67.5 per cent in 1950 to 64.9 per cent by 1990). Why was such a large proportion of the population engaged in agriculture although agricultural output could have grown with much less people working in the sector? The answer is that the industrial sector and the service sector did not absorb the people working in the agricultural sector. Many economists call this an important failure of our policies followed during 1950-1990. (NCERT)

    3. 3. Question

      Post – Independence, the government of India had to play an extensive role in promoting the industrial sector. This was primarily due to which of the following reasons?

      1. Lack of will on the part of industrialists
      2. Lack of capital in private sector
      3. Lack of big market for goods

      Which of the above statements is/are correct?

      • a) 1 and 2 Only
      • b) 2 and 3 Only
      • c) 1 and 3 Only
      • d) All
      Solutions: b)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 2

    4. 4. Question

      Consider the following statements:

      1. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 formed the basis of the Second Five Year Plan
      2. The Second Five Year plan tried to build the basis for a capitalist pattern of society

      Which of the above statements is/are correct?

      • a) 1 Only
      • b) 2 Only
      • c) Both
      • d) None
      Solution: a)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 2

      Please read this important article:

      http://forbesindia.com/article/independence-day-special/economic-milestone-second-five-year-plan-(1956)/38393/1

    5. 5. Question

      The Karve Committee, which was appointed by the Planning Commission in June, 1955, recommended

      • a) Gradual adoption of improved technologies in village and small scale industries without affecting employment
      • b) Adoption of modern technology in heavy industries to compete with then global majors
      • c) Decentralization of industries into rural regions
      • d) None of the above
      Solution: a)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 2

      http://planningcommission.nic.in/plans/planrel/fiveyr/2nd/2planch20.html

    6. 6. Question

      Import substitution, which was resorted to during India’s first seven five Year Plans, mainly involved

      • a) Boosting exports
      • b) Replacing imports with domestic production
      • c) Increasing investment in exports
      • d) Importing cheaper substitutions from other nations
      Solution: b)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 2

    7. 7. Question

      It is said that in India one had to wait for long duration to get a telephone connection before 1990s. Which of the following factors is/are responsible for this?

      1. State monopoly
      2. Lack of competition
      3. Increased demand

      Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

      • a) 1 and 2 Only
      • b) 1 and 3 Only
      • c) 2 and 3 Only
      • d) All

      Solution: d)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 3

    8. 8. Question

      Which of the following factors pushed India to approach World Bank and IMF to seek loan to rescue its economy in early 1990s?

      1. Fall in price of essential goods
      2. Huge imports
      3. Huge government expenditure
      4. Huge decline in foreign exchange reserves

      Choose the correct answer using codes below:

      • a) 1,2 and 3 Only
      • b) 1,3 and 4 Only
      • c) 2,3 and 4 Only
      • d) All
      Solution: c)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 2

      In the late 1980s, government expenditure began to exceed its revenue by such large margins that it became unsustainable. Prices of many essential goods rose sharply. Imports grew at a very high rate without matching growth of exports. As pointed out earlier, foreign exchange reserves declined to a level that was not adequate to finance imports for more than two weeks. There was also not sufficient foreign exchange to pay the interest that needs to be paid to international lenders. India approached the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), popularly known as World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF), and received $7 billion as loan to manage the crisis.

    9. 9. Question

      The New Economic Policy (NEP) of early 1990s consisted of policies that can broadly be classified into two groups: the stabilisation measures and the structural reform measures. Which of the following is not a ‘structural reform measure’?

      • a) Controlling inflation
      • b) Deregulation of industrial sector
      • c) Liberalization of banking sector
      • d) Tax reforms
      Solution: a)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 3

    10. 10. Question

      Which of the following Public Sector Undertaking is/are NOT a Maharatna company?

      1. Bharat Electronics Limited
      2. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
      3. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
      4. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
      5. Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited

      Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

      • a) 1 and 3 Only
      • b) 2 and 4 Only
      • c) 1,2 and 4 Only
      • d) None of the above
      Solution: d)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 3 

      Maharatna CPSEs

      1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
      2. Coal India Limited
      3. GAIL (India) Limited
      4. Indian Oil Corporation Limited
      5. NTPC Limited
      6. Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
      7. Steel Authority of India Limited

      http://dpe.nic.in/publications/list_of_maharatna_navratna-and_miniratna

    11. 11. Question

      Which of the following organization was set-up as a successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)?

      • a) International Trade Organization
      • b) World Trade Organization
      • c) World Trade Centre
      • d) Both a and b
      Solution: b)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 3

      Difference between WTC and WTO:

      http://www.wtcdenver.org/about/wtc-vs-wto

    12. 12. Question

      Consider the following statements:

      1. A reduction in capital expenditure, or the decision of a company not to replenish depleted capital goods can be called as disinvestment
      2. Divestment is the reduction of some kind of asset for financial, ethical, or political objectives or sale of an existing business by a firm

      Which of the above statements is/are correct?

      • a) 1 Only
      • b) 2 Only
      • c) Both
      • d) None
      Solution: c)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 3

      http://www.investopedia.com/terms/d/disinvestment.asp

      http://www.investopedia.com/terms/d/divestment.asp

    13. 13. Question

      With reference to poverty line estimations made by a most recent committee, consider the following statements:

      1. Those spending over Rs 32 a day in rural areas and Rs 47 in towns and cities are not considered poor
      2. The Rangarajan panel’s recommendation of poverty line results in decrease in the below poverty line population compared to population estimate based on the Tendulkar formula

      Which of the above statements is/are correct?

      • a) 1 Only
      • b) 2 Only
      • c) Both
      • d) None
    14. 14. Question

      During the British rule as many as 26 million people died in famines between 1875 and 1900. Which of the following is one of the causes of these deaths?

      • a) Export of food grains by the British from India
      • b) Low production of food grains
      • c) Increased production of cash crops
      • d) None of the above
      Solution: a)

      As over 70 per cent of Indians were engaged in agriculture throughout the British Raj period, the impact on that sector was more important on living standards than anything else. British policies involved sharply raising rural taxes that enabled merchants and moneylenders to become large landowners. Under the British, India began to export food grains and, as a result, as many as 26 million people died in famines between 1875 and 1900.

    15. 15. Question

      Vaccination is an example of

      • a) Preventive medicine
      • b) Curative medicine
      • c) Social medicine
      • d) Community medicine
      Solution: a)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 5

    16. 16. Question

      With reference to National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NBARD), consider the following statements:

      1. RBI holds 20% stake in the NABARD
      2. NABARD is a cooperative bank
      3. It was established by RBI

      Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

      • a) 1 Only
      • b) 3 Only
      • c) 1 and 3 Only
      • d) All
      Solution: b)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 6

      https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Bank_for_Agriculture_and_Rural_Development

    17. 17. Question

      Which of the following is/a component of organic farming?

      1. Crop Rotation
      2. Biofertilizers
      3. Vermicompost
      4. Crop Residue
      5. Bio pesticide

      Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

      • a) 1,2,3 and 4 Only
      • b) 2,3 and 5 Only
      • c) 1,2,3 and 5 Only
      • d) All
      Solution: d)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 6

      http://megapib.nic.in/org_farm_comp.htm

    18. 18. Question

      Electricity, Gas, Water Supply and Construction sectors are examples of

      • a) Primary sector
      • b) Secondary sector
      • c) Tertiary sector
      • d) Quaternary sector
      Solution: b)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 7

    19. 19. Question

      Consider the following statements:

      1. During the period 1960–2000, Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India grew positively and was higher than the employment growth
      2. During the period 1960–2000 employment grew at a stable rate of about 2 per cent

      Which of the above statements is/are correct?

      • a) 1 Only
      • b) 2 Only
      • c) Both
      • d) None
      Solution: c)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 7

    20. 20. Question

      Casualization of workforce means

      • a) Movement from self-employment to salaried employment
      • b) Movement from salaried employment to self-employment
      • c) Movement from self – employment to unemployment
      • d) None of the above
      Solution: d)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 7

    21. 21. Question

      Consider the following statements:

      1. Decrease in sex ratio indicates increase in female feticide
      2. Among major states, Haryana has both lowest adult and child sex ratio in India

      Which of the above statements is/are correct?

      • 1 Only
      • 2 Only
      • Both
      • None
      Solution: c)

      NCERT Class XI, Indian Economic Development, Chapter – 8

      http://www.census2011.co.in/sexratio.php

Indian polity 05

26 June 2015

Descriptive Questions

1) Do you think the Union Cabinet and the Prime Minister’s Office are evolving into more powerful offices than the Parliament? Critically comment. (200 Words)

General

  1. 1. Question

    With reference to the appointment of the Prime Minister in India, consider the following statements:

    1. As per the Constitutional provision, the President should appoint the leader of the largest party or coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister
    2. A 24 year old can become the Prime Minister of India as specific age is not mentioned in the Constitution to hold this office

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity, Chapter – 20

    Statement – 1: There is no such ‘Constitutional’ provision. It is by convention.

    Eligibility Criteria to become Prime Minister of India
    To be eligible for the position of the Prime Minister of India, a person should:

    • Be a citizen of India.
    • Be a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
    • Complete 25 years of age if he is a member of the Lok Sabha or 30 years if he is a member of the Rajya Sabha.

    http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/how-is-a-prime-minister-appointed-when-there-is-a-hung-parliament/article280426.ece

  2. 2. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The constitution of India doesn’t require that a person must prove his majority in Lok Sabha before he/she is appointed as the Prime Minister
    2. A person who is not a member of either House of parliament can be appointed as Prime Minister

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity, Chapter – 20

  3. 3. Question

    Which of the following Prime Ministers of India was not a member of Rajya Sabha when he/she was first appointed as the Prime Minister?

    • a) Indira Gandhi
    • b) H.D.Deve Gowda
    • c) Manmohan Singh
    • d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity, Chapter – 20

  4. 4. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the majority support in Lok Sabha
    2. The remuneration of the Prime Minister is decided by the Parliament

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • b) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity, Chapter – 20

    Though it is said that he holds the office during the pleasure of Parliaent, it is also true that he holds office as long as he enjoys majority support in Lok Sabha.

  5. 5. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. If the Prime Minister resigns, a senior member of the council of ministers by convention assumes the office of the Prime Minister
    2. Death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity, Chapter – 20

    During both cases of resignation or death, council of ministers gets dissolved.

  6. 6. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Prime Minister of India is the chairman of the Inter-State Council
    2. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is appointed by the President of India following a recommendation by the Prime Minister

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity, Chapter – 20

  7. 7. Question

    Which of the following personalities became Prime Ministers after being Chief Ministers of their respective states?

    1. D.Deve Gowda
    2. P Singh
    3. Chandrashekhar
    4. Narendra Modi
    5. V.Narasimha Rao

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 1,2,3 and 4 Only
    • b) 1,2,4 and 5 Only
    • c) 2,3,4 and 5 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity, Chapter – 20

  8. 8. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. A minister who is not a member of either Houses of the Parliament for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a minister
    2. The advice tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity, Chapter – 20

  9. 9. Question

    The Ministers of the Union government shall hold office during the pleasure of the

    • a) Parliament
    • b) Lok Sabha
    • c) President
    • d) Prime Minister
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity, Chapter – 21

  10. 10. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Parliamentary Affairs minister, even when he is a Member of Lok Sabha, he can participate in the proceedings of Rajya Sabha and vote there as and when required
    2. After the dissolution of Lok Sabha, the council of ministers ceases to exist

    Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity, Chapter – 21

  11. 11. Question

    When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the council of ministers

    • a) All the ministers have to resign
    • b) Ministers from Rajya Sabha will not resign
    • c) The Prime Minister will not resign
    • d) Both a and b
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity, Chapter – 21

  12. 12. Question

    After passing of no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, the council of ministers can advise the President to dissolve Lok Sabha. In this scenario,

    • a) The President may choose to ignore this advice
    • b) The President must dissolve as advised
    • c) The President should call for fresh elections
    • d) None of the above
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity, Chapter – 21

  13. 13. Question

    Which of the following cabinet committees doesn’t find mention in the Constitution of India?

    1. Appointments Committee
    2. Parliamentary Affairs Committee
    3. Economic Affairs Committee

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 1 and 3 Only
    • b) 3 Only
    • c) 1 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    All committees are extra-constitutional and they are not mentioned in the Constitution.

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity, Chapter – 21

Indian Polity 04

        Descriptive Questions

Please CLICK on the Questions to Answer Them

1) What are the provisions for the reservations for the socially disadvantaged groups as per the 73rd amendment? Explain how these provisions have changed the profile of the leadership at the village level. (200 Words) 

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 8

2) What were the main differences between the local governments before 73rd amendment and after that amendment? Examine. (200 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 8

3) Many amendments to the Constitution of India have been made due to different interpretations upheld by the Judiciary and the Parliament. Explain with examples.(200 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 9

4) Explain the reason for requiring special majority for amending the Constitution. (150 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 9

5) One of the limitations of the Constitution of India is that it does not adequately attend to gender justice. What evidence can you give to substantiate this charge? If you were writing the Constitution today, what provisions would you recommend for remedying this limitation? (200 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 9

  1. 1. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. For every amendment bill under the Article 368, special majority is required in both the houses of the Parliament
    2. There is a provision for both Houses of the Parliament to pass the amendment bill through a joint session

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 9

    There is no provision for joint session.

  2. 2. Question

    With reference to the beginning of local self-government in India, consider the following statements:

    1. Montagu – Chelmsford reforms under the proposed scheme of dyarchy, made local self-government a ‘transferred subject’
    2. When the Constitution was prepared, the subject of local government was assigned to the Concurrent list

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
  3. 3. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. K.Thungon Committee, along with L.N.Singhvi committee recommended constitutional recognition for the local government bodies
    2. The 64th Constitutional amendment successfully gave the constitutional status to Panchayat Raj system whereas 73ed and 74th amendments added separate schedules for the same

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
  4. 4. Question

    With reference to reservation in Panchayats, consider the following statements:

    1. At present, the Constitution has been amended to provide fifty percent reservation for women in panchayats at all levels
    2. Reservations apply not merely to ordinary members in Panchayats but also to the positions of Chairpersons or ‘Adhyakshas‘ at all the three levels

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
  5. 5. Question

    Who is responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions?

    • a) The Chief Election Commissioner of India
    • b) State Election Commissioner
    • c) Department of Panchayat Raj of State Government
    • d) A Chosen officer by the Election Commission of India
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 8

  6. 6. Question

    The State Finance Commission is constituted by

    • a) The Governor of State
    • b) The President of India
    • c) The State Legislature
    • d) The Finance Commission of India
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 8

    http://fincomindia.nic.in/ShowContentOne.aspx?id=16&Section=1

  7. 7. Question

    With reference to State Financial Commissions, consider the following statements:

    1. They are constitutional bodies
    2. They are constituted to review and revise the financial position of panchayat raj institutions and urban local governments
    3. They are quasi-judicial bodies

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 and 2 Only
    • b) 2 and 3 Only
    • b) 1 and 3 Only
    • d) All
  8. 8. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. In the Loksabha, even if only 300 members are present at the time of voting, the amendment bill must get the support of 273 out of them
    2. The President has powers to send an amendment bill back for reconsideration

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • a) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 9

  9. 9. Question

    The President of India is elected by members of electoral college NOT consisting of

    1. The elected members of Rajya Sabha
    2. The elected members of Lok Sabha
    3. The nominated members of Lok Sabha
    4. The elected members of Legislative Assemblies of States
    5. The elected members of State Legislative Councils

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 1,2 and 5 Only
    • b) 3 and 5 Only
    • b) 3 Only
    • b) 5 Only
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity Chapter – 18, President

  10. 10. Question

    Total value of vote of each MLA is calculated while electing the President of India. Which of the following states has the least value of vote of each such MLA from its legislature?

    • a) Goa
    • b) Arunachal Pradesh
    • c) Sikkim
    • d) Mizoram
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity Chapter – 18, President

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electoral_College_(India)

  11. 11. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The impeachment of the President is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament
    2. The President of India cannot be impeached if it is found that he is employing a 13 year old boy as a servant

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity Chapter – 18, President

    Second statement violates the Constitution; hence, theoretically impeachment procedure can be initiated against the President.

  12. 12. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The President can promulgate an ordinance when only one house is in session
    2. An ordinance made when both the houses are in session is void

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity Chapter – 18, President

  13. 13. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Governor of a State can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial
    2. The exercise of pardoning power by the President is not subject to judicial review under any circumstances

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity Chapter – 18, President

  14. 14. Question

    Which of the following Presidents of India did not serve as Vice – President of India before assuming their office?

    1. Giani Zail Singh
    2. Fakruddin Ali Ahmed
    3. Zakir Hussain
    4. V.Giri

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 1 and 3 Only
    • b) 1, 2 and 3 Only
    • c) 2,3 and 4
    • d) 1 and 2 Only
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity Chapter – 18 & 19

  15. 15. Question

    To be eligible for election as Vice-President, a person should fulfill which of the following conditions?

    1. He should have completed 30 years of age
    2. He should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha
    3. He should not be currently holding the office of Governor of any state

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) 1 and 3 Only
    • d) All

    Solution: b)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity Chapter – 19

Indian Polity 03

Descriptive Questions

Please CLICK on the Questions to Answer Them

What are the demands raised by States in their quest for greater autonomy? Critically discuss some of the measures taken by the union government in recent years to fulfill these demands. (200 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 7

How is judicial activism related to the protection of fundamental rights? Has it helped in expanding the scope of fundamental rights? Discuss. (200 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 6

  1. 1. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Preamble to India’s constitution has never been amended by the Parliament
    2. The Preamble is part of the basic structure of the Indian constitution

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity Chapter – 4

  2. 2. Question

    With reference to the Government of India Act 1858, consider the following statements:

    1. This Act brought an end to the rule of East India Company in India
    2. It had a provision for the creation of an Indian Civil Service under the control of the Secretary of State
    3. This Act created a post of Secretary of State who was empowered to appoint a Governor-General and the Governors of the Presidencies

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 and 2 Only
    • b) 1 Only
    • c) 1 and 3 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity Chapter – 1

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Government_of_India_Act_1858

  3. 3. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Constitution provides that the salaries and allowances of the judges are not subjected to the approval of the legislature
    2. Parliament cannot discuss the conduct of the judges except when the proceeding to remove a judge is being carried out

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    NCERT, Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 6

  4. 4. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. This act made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process
    2. This act initiated the process of decentralization by restoring legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies

    Which of the following Acts brought above changes in British India?

    • a) The Indian Councils Act 1861
    • a) The Indian Councils Act 1892
    • a) The Indian Councils Act 1909
    • d) Government of India Act 1858
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity Chapter – 1

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_Councils_Act_1861

  5. 5. Question

    With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:

    1. Its decisions are binding on all courts
    2. It cannot transfer Judges of High Courts
    3. It can move cases from any court to itself
    4. It cannot transfer cases from one High Court to another

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 and 3 Only
    • b) 1, 2 and 3 Only
    • c) 2,3 and 4 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    NCERT, Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 6

  6. 6. Question

    Settling disputes between Union and States and amongst States by the Supreme Court of India is its

    • a) Appellate Jurisdiction
    • b) Original Jurisdiction
    • c) Advisory Jurisdiction
    • d) Special power
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    NCERT, Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 6

  7. 7. Question

    The Supreme Court can declare a law as unconstitutional and therefore non-operational if this law infringes one’s fundamental rights. This step by the Supreme Court can be called as

    • a) Judicial Overreach
    • b) Judicial Activism
    • c) Judicial Review
    • d) Judicial Restraint
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    NCERT, Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 6

  8. 8. Question

    With reference to the interim government of 1946, consider the following statements:

    1. The members of the interim government were members of the Viceroy’s Executive Council
    2. Jawaharlal Nehru was the Vice-President of this Council whereas the Viceroy was its President and Head
    3. Dr Rajendra Prasad was made Food and Agriculture minister in this government

    Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

    • a) 1 and 2 Only
    • b) 3 Only
    • c) 2 Only
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity Chapter – 1

  9. 9. Question

    Which of the following provisions of the constitution of India reveal its secular character?

    1. Article 15
    2. Preamble
    3. Article 44
    4. Article 14

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 1,2 and 3 Only
    • b) 2 and 3 Only
    • c) 1, 2 and 4 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity Chapter – 3

  10. 10. Question

    Provisions relating to the disqualification of members of state legislatures on the ground of defection is included in the

    • a) Ninth Schedule
    • b) Tenth Schedule
    • c) Fourth Schedule
    • d) Sixth Schedule
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    Laxmikanth, Indian Polity Chapter – 3

  11. 11. Question

    Who can legislate on cyber law in India?

    • a) Union legislature
    • b) State legislature
    • c) Both Union and State legislature
    • d) The Rajyasabha
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    NCERT, Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 7

    As it comes under Residuary Powers, only union legislature can legislate on it

  12. 12. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The state emergency imposed under the Article – 356 can last for a maximum period of three years with repeated parliamentary approval
    2. During state emergency under Article – 356, the President can take over the entire work of the executive, and the Governor administers the state in the name of the President

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    NCERT, Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 7

indian polity 02

We will cover remaining chapters from 11th Class NCERT textbook in coming days along with the chapters from Laxmikanth

Descriptive Questions

Please CLICK on the Questions to Answer Them

1) Rather than effective control of the executive, the Lok Sabha is a platform for the expression of popular sentiments and people’s expectations. Do you agree? Give reasons. (200 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 5

2) How has the system of parliamentary committee affected the overseeing and appraisal of legislation by the Parliament? Examine. (200 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 5

3) Should India have an elected administration instead of an appointed administration? Critically comment. (200 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 4

4) The parliamentary system of executive vests many powers in the legislature for controlling the executive. Why, do you think, is it so necessary to control the executive? Discuss. (200 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 4

  1. 1. Question

    With reference to the executive organ of the government, consider the following statements:

    1. It is responsible for the implementation of laws and policies
    2. In India, the President is the head of the political executive
    3. Civil servants in India are part of the  political executive

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 1 and 2 Only
    • c) 2 and 3 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 4

    http://pib.nic.in/archieve/others/pr.html

  2. 2. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. In Canada the Prime Minister is the head of the government
    2. In Japan, the Prime Minister is the head of the state
    3. In Germany, Chancellor is the head of the government

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 and 3 Only
    • b) 2 and 3 Only
    • b) 1 and 2 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 4

  3. 3. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. In India, the election of the President takes place in accordance with the principle of proportional representation with single transferable vote
    2. The only ground for impeachment of the President is violation of the Constitution

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 4

  4. 4. Question

    Consider the following statements

    1. In India, the President can not just keep the bill pending with him without any time limit
    2. In India, there is greater scope for presidential assertiveness when governments are not stable and coalitions occupy power

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 4

  5. 5. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. In India, the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of members of the Parliament
    2. In India, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 4

    In first and second statements it is Lok Sabha, not parliament

  6. 6. Question

    With reference to members of the State Public Service Commissions, consider the following statements:

    1. Their removal or suspension is subject to a thorough enquiry made by a judge of the High Court
    2. Members of the Public Service Commissions are appointed for a fixed term of five years

    Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 4

    First statement – enquiry made by Supreme court judge

    Second statement – for Six years

  7. 7. Question

    Which of the following officers doesn’t belong to Central Services in India?

    • a) Indian Revenue Service officer
    • b) India Foreign Service officer
    • c) Commercial Tax Officer
    • d) Railway Protection Force officer
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 4

    Commercial Tax officer belongs to State Services

  8. 8. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Rajya Sabha can criticise the government but cannot remove it
    2. In impeaching the President and removing the Vice President the powers of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are co-equal

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 5

  9. 9. Question

    Which of the following processes/tools allow elected members of parliament and state legislatures vigil on the executive and the administrative agencies of the government?

    1. Question Hour
    2. Zero Hour
    3. Approval and ratification of laws
    4. No Confidence Motion

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 1,2 and 3 Only
    • b) 2,3 and 4 Only
    • c) 1 and 2 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 5

  10. 10. Question

    Which of the following amendment/amendments to the Constitution laid down or modified the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection?

    • a) 52nd and 92nd Amendments
    • b) 52nd and 91st Amendments
    • c) 51st and 91st Amendments
    • d) 51st and 92nd Amendments

    Solution: b)

    NCERT Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter – 5

    http://www.dnaindia.com/india/report-here-s-everything-you-need-to-know-about-anti-defection-law-1978277

Indian Polity (22 June 2015)

            Descriptive Questions

Please CLICK on the Questions to Answer Them

1) Compare and contrast the First Past the Post system with the Proportional Representation. It is said that  the Indian democracy is now ready to shift from a crude First Past the Post system to a system of Proportional Representation. Do you agree with this statement? Give your reasons for or against this statement. (200 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 3

2) How is the President of India elected? Do you think his/her election process is in consonance with his/her powers as enshrined in the constitution? Examine. (200 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 3

3) What is the difference between the system of reservation of constituencies and the system of separate electorate? Why did the Constitution makers reject the latter? Discuss. (200 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 3

4) Indian electoral system aims at ensuring representation of socially disadvantaged sections. However we are yet to have even 10 per cent women members in our legislatures. What measures would you suggest to improve the situation? Discuss. (200 Words)

NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 3

  1. Question

    With reference to constitution of a nation and its functions, consider the following statements:

    1. A constitution sets basic rules which are enforceable
    2. It decides how the government will be constituted
    3. It compulsorily provides foundation for a secular state
    4. It sets some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens

    Which of the above statements is/are true?

    • a) 3 and 4 Only
    • b) 1, 2 and 4 Only
    • c) 1, 2 and 3 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 1

    A constitution cannot necessarily (forget, compulsorily) provide foundation for a secular state. There are countries which are theocratic yet have constitutions.

  2. 2. Question

    Which of the following rights of citizens enshrined in the Indian constitution cannot be absolutely violated by the government?

    1. Right to property
    2. Right to education
    3. Freedom of speech
    4. Freedom of association

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 1 and 2 Only
    • b) 1,2 and 3 Only
    • c) 2 Only
    • d) None of the above
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 1

    Though some of these are fundamental rights, they can be suspended during national emergency.

  3. 3. Question

    One of the functions of Indian constitution is to enable the government to fulfil the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society. In which of the following sections of the Indian constitution, would you find such enabling provisions?

    1. The preamble
    2. Fundamental Rights
    3. Directive Principles of State Policies
    4. Article 243-D

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
    • b) 2 and 3 Only
    • b) 3 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 1

    Providing reservation (243-D in Panchayats) is also an enabling provision.

  4. 4. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Indian Constitution does not make ethnic identity a criterion for citizenship
    2. The constitution of India gives its people a moral identity

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 1

  5. 5. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Indian Constitution was subjected to a referendum only once in its history since independence
    2. In the United Kingdom, a series of documents and decisions that, taken collectively, are referred to as the constitution

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 1

    The Indian Constitution was never subject to such a referendum.

  6. 6. Question

    With reference to the making of Indian Constitution and the Constituent Assembly, consider the following statements:

    1. The first sitting of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9 December1946
    2. The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by direct election
    3. There were only two women in the Constituent Assembly

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 1 and 2 Only
    • c) 1 and 3 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 1

    There were 9 women.

    Its members were elected by indirect election by the members of the Provisional Legislative Assemblies that had been established in 1935.

    http://parliamentofindia.nic.in/ls/debates/facts.htm

    http://www.dnaindia.com/lifestyle/report-online-exclusive-15-women-involved-in-shaping-the-indian-constitution-1956415 (important link!)

  7. 7. Question

    Of which of the following committees of the constituent assembly was Jawaharlal Nehru not a Chairman?

    • a) Union Constitution Committee
    • b) Union Powers Committee
    • c) Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas
    • d) States committee
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 1

    http://parliamentofindia.nic.in/ls/debates/facts.htm

  8. 8. Question

    With reference to the Objectives Resolution moved by Nehru in 1946, consider the following statements:

    1. This resolution encapsulated the aspirations and values behind the Constitution
    2. Based on this resolution, Indian Constitution gave institutional expression to its fundamental commitments: equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty and a cosmopolitan identity

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 1

  9. 9. Question

    Which of the following provisions was borrowed from the constitution of Canada to the Indian constitution?

    • a) Principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
    • b) Directive Principles of State Policy
    • c) The idea of Residual Powers
    • d) Institution of the Speaker and his role
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 1

  10. 10. Question

    Which of the following is a good reason to conclude that the authority of the constitution is higher than that of the parliament?

    • a) The constitution was framed before the parliament came into being.
    • b) The constitution makers were more eminent leaders than the members of the parliament.
    • c) The constitution specifies how parliament is to be formed and what are its powers.
    • d) The constitution cannot be fully amended by the parliament
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 1

  11. 11. Question

    With reference to Fundamental Rights as enshrined in Indian constitution, consider the following statements:

    1. While ordinary legal rights are protected and enforced by ordinary law, Fundamental Rights are protected and guaranteed by the constitution of the country
    2. Fundamental rights are not absolute or unlimited rights

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 2

  12. 12. Question

    Which of the following rights is part of the Right to Equality as written in the Indian Constitution?

    • a) Prohibition of forced labour
    • b) Protection of language, culture of minorities
    • c) Rights of the accused and convicts
    • d) Abolition of titles
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 2

    It is article 18 under Right to Equality

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_rights_in_India#Right_to_equality

  13. 13. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The right to shelter and livelihood is also included in the right to life
    2. As per the freedom of life and personal liberty guaranteed by the Indian constitution, no one can be arrested without being told the grounds for such an arrest

    Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 2

  14. 14. Question

    To ensure a fair trial in courts, the Constitution has provided three rights. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

    • a) No person would be punished for the same offence more than once
    • b) No person should be arrested without the consent of his nearest relatives
    • c) No law shall declare any action as illegal from a backdate
    • d) No person shall be asked to give evidence against himself or herself
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 2

  15. 15. Question

    Which of the following is NOT explicitly mentioned in the Indian constitution?

    • a) Abolition of begar
    • b) Abolition of forced labour
    • c) Abolition of traffic in human beings
    • d) Abolition of involuntary labour
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 2

    Article: 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.—(1) Traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.

  16. 16. Question

    With reference to fundamental duties mentioned in the Indian constitution, consider the following statements:

    1. The 42nd amendment to the Constitution among other things, inserted a list of Fundamental Duties of Citizens
    2. The Indian Constitution makes the enjoyment of rights dependent or conditional upon fulfilment of the fundamental duties
    3. To abjure violence is one of the fundamental duties

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 1 and 3 Only
    • c) 3 Only
    • d) 2 and 3 only
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 2

    http://lawmin.nic.in/olwing/coi/coi-english/Const.Pock%202Pg.Rom8Fsss(8).pdf

  17. 17. Question

    Which of the following is/are non-justiciable rights under the constitution of India?

    1. Equal pay for equal work (for men and women)
    2. Right to work
    3. Right to education
    4. Right against economic Exploitation

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 1,2 and 4 Only
    • b) 2 and 4 Only
    • c) 1,2 and 3 Only
    • d) All

    Solution: a)

    NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 2

    Right to education is now a justiciable right

Indian Polity and Governance

Integrated Approach to UPSC Prelims + Mains – 2015 – A Self Study Guide (June 22 to July 6)

Hope the last Timetable was useful to you. We know it was bit hectic, but we hope you followed it and got benefited. Coming days will be even more hectic (provided you are going to follow this timetable).

Topics to be covered:

Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc. (NCERT, Laxmikanth, D D Basu – very selectively )

In the following timetable, you can study mentioned topics from D D Basu too. We have mentioned only NCERT and Laxmikanth books below to make it easy for people who are comfortable with these.

June 22

  • NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 1 to 6

June 23

  • NCERT – Class XI, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapters 7 to 10

June 24

  • Laxmikanth: Indian Polity, Chapters 1 to 4

June 25

  • Laxmikanth: Indian Polity, Chapters on President, Vice President, Governor

June 26

  • Laxmikanth: Indian Polity, Chapters on PM, Council of Ministers, CM, Council of Ministers

June 27 – Revision

June 28 –  Revision

June 29

  • Laxmikanth: Indian Polity, Chapters on Parliament, Parliamentary Committees, State Legislature

June 30

  • Laxmikanth: Indian Polity, Chapters on Supreme Court, High Court, Subordinate courts, Tribunals

July 1

  • Laxmikanth: Indian Polity, Chapters on  System of Government [Chapters 12 to 16]

July 2

  • Laxmikanth: Indian Polity, Chapters on Citizenship, Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, DPSP,

July 3

  • Laxmikanth: Indian Polity, Chapters on Constitutional, Non-constitutional Bodies &  Other Constitutional Dimensions

July 4 – Revision

July 5 – Revision

July 6

  • Laxmikanth: Indian Polity, Chapters on Amendment of the Constitution, Special Provisions for states + J&K, UT & Schedule & Tribal areas,
  • Panchayati Raj, Municipalities

July 7

  • Laxmikanth: Indian Polity, Chapters on Political Dynamics (Part X All chapters)

We will cover following Topics once we complete above topics:

July 8 to July 21

Economic and Social Development Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector initiatives, etc.  (NCERT, Economic Survey, Ramesh Singh – selectively, Internet)

Indian Polity 01

Indian Polity 02

Indian Polity 03

Indian Polity 04

Indian Polity 05

General Science and Geography09

June 20 Goh Cheng Leong – Certificate Physical and Human Geography Part – 2

Descriptive Questions

Please CLICK on the Questions to Answer Them

1) In the light of various conflicts and expanding influence of various terrorist organisations in the Middle East, critically examine how these factors have affected the life and culture of tribes living in the region. (200 Words)

Goh Cheng Leong, Certificate Physical and Human Geography, Chapter – 17

Reference

Reference

Reference

  1. Question

    Which of the following contour lines are correctly matched?

    1. Isohyet – A line joining points with constant wind speed.
    2. Isohel – A line joining points of equal precipitation on a map.
    3. Isotherm – A line that connects points on a map that have the same temperature
    4. Isobar – A line of equal or constant pressure on a graph
    5. Isoneph – A line indicating equal cloud cover

    Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

    • a) 1,3 and 4 Only
    • b) 3, 4 and 5 Only
    • c) 3 and 4 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    Goh Cheng Leong – Certificate Physical and Human Geography, Chapter – 13

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Contour_line

  2. 2. Question

    With reference to altimeter, consider the following statements:

    1. It is an instrument used to measure the altitude of an object above a fixed level
    2. Altitude in aeroplanes is determined based on the measurement of atmospheric pressure

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • b) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    Goh Cheng Leong – Certificate Physical and Human Geography, Chapter – 13

    https://en.wikipedia.org/?title=Altimeter

  3. 3. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Beaufort wind scale is an empirical measure that relates wind force to observed conditions at sea or on land
    2. The Beaufort number 12 indicates calm weather

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    It measures wind Speed, not force.

    Goh Cheng Leong – Certificate Physical and Human Geography, Chapter – 13

    http://www.spc.noaa.gov/faq/tornado/beaufort.html

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Beaufort_scale

  4. 4. Question

    In which of the following climate zones one can find evergreen coniferous forests?

    • a) Warm temperate zone
    • b) Cool temperate zone
    • c) Alpine zone
    • d) Both a and b
    Incorrect
    Solution: b)

    Goh Cheng Leong – Certificate Physical and Human Geography, Chapter – 14 (Page – 114)

  5. 5. Question

    Please observe the following graph:

    savannah sudan climate

    Which of the following climate types does this graph represent?

    • a) The Savannah climate in southern hemisphere
    • b) The Mediterranean
    • c) The tropical monsoon
    • d) The Savannah climate in northern hemisphere
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    Goh Cheng Leong – Certificate Physical and Human Geography, Chapter – 17

  6. 6. Question

    In which of the following countries would you find largest population of the Hausa tribe, which was recently in news?

    • a) Niger
    • b) Nigeria
    • c) Sudan
    • d) Chad
  7. 7. Question

    With reference to Bedouins and Tuareg people, consider the following statements:

    1. Majority of the population of both tribes live in the Middle East region of Asia
    2. Tuareg people have abandoned nomadism whereas Bedouins fiercely practice it in the region
    3. Recently both tribes have joined hands with Islamic State to terrorize the region

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1 and 2 Only
    • b) 1 and 3 Only
    • c) 2 Only
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: d)

    http://egyptianstreets.com/2015/05/01/tarabin-bedouins-declare-war-on-isis-affiliated-militants-in-egypt/

    Goh Cheng Leong – Certificate Physical and Human Geography, Chapter – 18

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tuareg_people

  8. 8. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Sirocco is a cold local wind which originates in the Alps
    2. Mistral is a hot. Dusty wind which originates in the Sahara desert

    Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

    • a) 1 Only
    • b) 2 Only
    • c) Both
    • d) None
    Incorrect
    Solution: c)

    Goh Cheng Leong – Certificate Physical and Human Geography, Chapter – 19

  9. 9. Question

    With reference to Sugar Beet, consider the following statements:

    1. France and US are two of the largest producers of this crop
    2. It is being used to produce about 20% of the world’s sugar production
    3. Whereas Sugarcane contain high quantity of sucrose, Sugar Beet contains high content of fructose giving distinct quality of sugar output
    4. Unlike sugarcane, Sugar beet is a temperate crop

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • a) 1,2 and 4 Only
    • b) 2,3 and 4 Only
    • c) 1,3 and 4 Only
    • d) All
    Incorrect
    Solution: a)

    Both contain sucrose.

    Goh Cheng Leong – Certificate Physical and Human Geography, Chapter – 23

    http://www.imperialsugar.com/sugar-101/cane-sugar-vs-beet-sugar

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sugar_beet

  10. 10. Question

    The rainfall that takes place in Assam and Mizoram hills is mainly of which of the following types?

    • a) Convectional
    • b) Orographic
    • c) Frontal
    • d) Cyclonic

    Solution: b)

    Goh Cheng Leong – Certificate Physical and Human Geography, Chapter – 14